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Comments 5

  1. Greetings,
    I just finished watching Dwight Prior speak on the topic “Is Yeshua superior to the Law…” in which he mentioned a distribution (email I presume) of a periodic article entitled “The Taste of Torah”. Considering the fact that was back in 2006 I must inquire if it is still available, and if so how can I begin to receive it?
    Thank-you for your marvelous work.
    rick weakley
    weakhome@net-venture.com

  2. How would the word “kenosis” in Philippians 2:7 be understood if it were put back in to a Hebrew word? In other words, would the definition mean “self-emptying” as it is interrupted today from the Greek? That sounds too much like a Greek mindset and not a Hebraic worldview. Please help. thank you, Larry

    1. David N. Bivin

      It is difficult to establish a Hebrew equivalent for the verb κενοῦν (kenoun, make of no effect, make empty), which appears in Phil. 2:7. This verb appears only twice in the Septuagint (Jer. 14:2; 15:9) where it is the translation of a Hebrew verb meaning “languish.” In the NT kenoun appears only in the Epistles of Paul (5 times). Apparently, this verb represents Greek Greek, rather than Hebraic Greek.

  3. Pingback: The Stakes Are High | Jerusalem Perspective Online

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